CISSP Questions PDF [2023] Use Valid New dump to Clear Exam
Passing ISC CISSP Exam Using 2023 Practice Tests
How to earn MCISSP credential?
The candidate must earn 40 continuing education units (CEUs) for the MCISSP credential. The CEUs may be earned through participation in the ISSA-certified training course, obtaining CEUs from any other Information Systems Security Association (ISSA) member, obtaining certification credits for passing the exam, or through participating in many other online sites.
The Master level provides a well-rounded view of the entire field of information security and prepares professionals to step into security executive positions as well as pursuing the CISSP (ISC)2. The candidate must have either a minimum of five years professional experience in two or more areas of information security; or one year of experience in two or more areas of information security and a four-year college degree. As the MCISSP has broadened its reach, it can now be achieved by those who hold this credential and no prior professional-level certifications.
Three new specialties were added to give depth to students' profession knowledge, which was not previously seen with the MCSE speciality.
The CISSP certification is highly valued in the industry and is recognized by many organizations around the world. It is considered to be a benchmark for information security professionals and is often required by employers when hiring for information security positions. Certified Information Systems Security Professional certification demonstrates that the holder has the knowledge and skills needed to protect their organization's information assets from a wide range of threats.
NEW QUESTION # 439
Which of the following combinations would negatively affect availability?
- A. Unauthorized transactions and outdated hardware
- B. Denial of Service (DoS) attacks and outdated hardware
- C. Fire and accidental changes to data
- D. Unauthorized transactions and denial of service attacks
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 440
Sandra is studying for her CISSP exam. Sandra has come to you for help and wants to know what the last step in the change control process is?
- A. Validated and approved
- B. Inform user of change
- C. Report change to management
- D. Review and approve
- E. Test and implement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reporting the change to management is the last step in the process.
NEW QUESTION # 441
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?
- A. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization
- B. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
- C. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
- D. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://resources.infosecinstitute.com/category/certifications-training/cissp/domains/asset- security/data-and-system-ownership/#gref
NEW QUESTION # 442
The Industrial Control System (ICS) Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) has released an alert regarding ICS-focused malware specifically propagating through Windows-based business networks. Technicians at a local water utility note that their dams, canals, and locks controlled by an internal Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system have been malfunctioning. A digital forensics professional is consulted in the Incident Response (IR) and recovery. Which of the following is the MOST challenging aspect of this investigation?
- A. SCADA network latency
- B. Physical access to the system
- C. Group policy implementation
- D. Volatility of data
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 443
This type of password recovery is considered more difficult and must work through all possible combinations of numbers and characters.
- A. Brute force
- B. Dictionary
- C. Active
- D. Hybrid
- E. Passive
Answer: A
Explanation:
Brute force cracking is considered more difficult and must work through all possible combinations of numbers and characters.
NEW QUESTION # 444
Which TCP/IP protocol operates at the OSI Network layer?
- A. UDP
- B. FTP
- C. TCP
- D. IP
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is IP. IP operates at the network layer of the OSI model and at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model. FTP operates at the application layer of the TCP/IP model, which is roughly similar to the top three layers of the OSI model: the Application, Presentation, and Session layers. TCP and UDP both operate at the OSI Transport layer, which is similar to the TCP/IP Host-to-host layer.
NEW QUESTION # 445
Which of the following items BEST describes the standards addressed
by Title II, Administrative Simplification, of the Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act (US Kennedy-Kassebaum Health
Insurance and Portability Accountability Act -HIPAA-Public Law 104-19)?
- A. Transaction Standards, to include Code Sets; Security and Electronic
Signatures and Privacy - B. Transaction Standards, to include Code Sets; Unique Health
Identifiers; Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy - C. Unique Health Identifiers; Security and Electronic Signatures and
Privacy - D. Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
Answer: B
Explanation:
HIPAA was designed to provide for greater access to personal
health care information, enable portability of health care insurance,
establish strong penalties for health care fraud, and streamline the
health care claims process through administrative simplification. To
accomplish the latter, Title II of the HIPAA law, Administrative Simplification, requires standardizing the formats for the electronic transmission of health care information. The transactions and code sets portion includes standards for submitting claims, enrollment information, premium payments, and others as adopted by HHS. The standard for transactions is the ANSI ASC X12N version 4010 EDI
Standard. Standard code sets are required for diagnoses and inpatient
services, professional services, dental services (replaces D'
codes), and drugs (instead of J' codes). Also, local codes are not to be used. Unique health identifiers are required to identify health care providers, health plans, employers, and individuals. Security and electronic signatures are specified to protect health care information. Pri- vacy protections are required to ensure that there is no unauthorized
disclosure of individually identifiable health care information.
The other answers are incorrect since they do not include all four
major standards. Additional information can be found at http://
aspe.hhs.gov/adminsimp.
NEW QUESTION # 446
What is the most critical characteristic of a biometric identifying system?
- A. Reliability
- B. Storage requirements
- C. Accuracy
- D. Perceived intrusiveness
Answer: C
Explanation:
The principle of biometrics is to use some unique characteristic to identify whether the person is who they say they are. Biometrics works by matching or verifying a person's unique traits with stored data in two categories: physiological characteristics and those that are behavioral. Physical indicators include iris, fingerprint, facial, or hand geometry. Behavior types are usually voiceprints, keystroke dynamics and handwritten signatures. Most biometric technologies require special hardware to convert analog measurements of signatures, voices, or patterns of fingerprints and palm prints, to digital measurement, which computers can read. The biggest characteristic and problem of biometric implementations today is the accuracy, we must see the level of accuracy before buying a solution, because the technology is not perfect at this time and it can be erroneous sometimes.
NEW QUESTION # 447
In general, servers that are facing the Internet should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ). What is MAIN purpose of the DMZ?
- A. Bypass the need for a firewall.
- B. Prepare the server for potential attacks.
- C. Reduced risk to internal systems.
- D. Mitigate the risk associated with the exposed server.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 448
A security professional was tasked with rebuilding a company's wireless infrastructure. Which of the following are the MOST important factors to consider while making a decision on which wireless spectrum to deploy?
- A. Facility size, intermodulation, and direct satellite service
- B. Performance, geographic location, and radio signal interference
- C. Existing client devices, manufacturer reputation, and electrical interference
- D. Hybrid frequency band, service set identifier (SSID), and interpolation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 449
Which of the following alarm systems is recommended to detect intrusions through windows in a high-noise, occupied environment?
- A. Photoelectric sensor
- B. Motion sensor
- C. Acoustic sensor
- D. Shock sensor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Software Development Security
NEW QUESTION # 450
How does a Host Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) identify a potential attack?
- A. Matches traffic patterns to virus signature files
- B. Examines the Access Control List (ACL)
- C. Monitors alarms sent to the system administrator
- D. Examines log messages or other indications on the system.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 451
Who is responsible for initiating corrective measures and capabilities used when there are security violations?
- A. Management
- B. Data owners
- C. Security administrator
- D. Information systems auditor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Management is responsible for initiating corrective measures and capabilities used when there are security violations.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Information systems auditor ensures that the correct controls are in place and are being maintained securely. The information systems auditor is not responsible for initiating corrective measures and capabilities used when there are security violations.
B: The security administrator is responsible for implementing and maintaining specific security network devices and software in the enterprise. These controls commonly include firewalls, IDS, IPS, antimalware, security proxies, data loss prevention, etc. The security administrator is not responsible for initiating corrective measures and capabilities used when there are security violations.
D: The data owner decides upon the classification of the data she is responsible for. The data owner is also responsible for ensuring that the necessary security controls are in place, defining security requirements per classification and backup requirements, approving any disclosure activities, ensuring that proper access rights are being used, and defining user access criteria. The data owner is not responsible for initiating corrective measures and capabilities used when there are security violations.
References:
https://quizlet.com/31878633/cissp-domain-1-information-security-governance-and-risk-management- flash-cards/ Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, pp. 121-125
NEW QUESTION # 452
Which of the following will you consider as most secure?
- A. Password
- B. Login phrase
- C. One time password
- D. Login ID
Answer: C
Explanation:
Each time the user logs in, the token generates a unique password that is synchronized with the network server. If anyone tries to reuse this dynamic password, access is denied, the event is logged and the network remains secure.
NEW QUESTION # 453
Which of the following is the MOST important goal of information asset valuation?
- A. Developing a consistent and uniform method of controlling access on information assets
- B. Developing appropriate access control policies and guidelines
- C. Determining the appropriate level of protection
- D. Assigning a financial value to an organization's information assets
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 454
The HIPAA task force must inventory the organization's systems, processes, policies, procedures and data to determine which elements are critical to patient care and central to the organizations business. All must be inventoried and listed by
- A. by priority and cost as well as availability, reliability, access and use. The person responsible for criticality analysis must remain mission-focused and carefully document all the criteria used.
- B. by priority as well as availability, reliability, access and use. The person responsible for criticality analysis must remain mission-focused and carefully document all the criteria used.
- C. by priority as well availability, reliability, access and use. The person responsible for criticality analysis must remain mission-focused but need not document all the criteria used.
- D. by priority as well as encryption levels, authenticity, storage-devices, availability, reliability, access and use. The person responsible for criticality analysis must remain mission-focused and carefully document all the criteria used.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 455
What is the correct sequence which enables an authorized agency to use
the Law Enforcement Access Field (LEAF) to decrypt a message sent by
using the Clipper Chip? The following designations are used for the
respective keys involved Kf, the family key; Ks, the session key; U, a
unique identifier for each Clipper Chip and Ku, the unit key that is
unique to each Clipper Chip.
- A. Decrypt the LEAF with the family key, Kf; recover U; obtain a court
order to obtain Ks, the session key. Use the session key to decrypt the message. - B. Obtain a court order to acquire the family key, Kf; recover U and Ku; then recover Ks, the session key. Use the session key to decrypt the message.
- C. Decrypt the LEAF with the family key, Kf; recover U; obtain a court
order to obtain the two halves of Ku; recover Ku; and then recover Ks,
the session key. Use the session key to decrypt the message. - D. Obtain a court order to acquire the two halves of Ku, the unit key.
Recover Ku. Decrypt the LEAF with Ku and then recover Ks, the
session key. Use the session key to decrypt the message.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The explanation is based on the LEAF as shown in the Figure.
image018
The message is encrypted with the symmetric session key, Ks. In order to decrypt the message, then, Ks must be recovered. The LEAF contains the session key, but the LEAF is encrypted with the family key, Kf , that is common to all Clipper Chips. The authorized agency has
access to Kf and decrypts the LEAf. However, the session key is still
encrypted by the 80-bit unit key, Ku, that is unique to each Clipper
Chip and is identified by the unique identifier, U. Ku is divided into
two halves, and each half is deposited with an escrow agency. The
law enforcement agency obtains the two halves of Ku by presenting
the escrow agencies with a court order for the key identified by U.
The two halves of the key obtained by the court order are XORed
together to obtain Ku. Then, Ku is used to recover the session key, Ks, and Ks is used to decrypt the message.
The decryption sequence to obtain Ks can be summarized as:
image020
This is the sequence described in answer "Decrypt the LEAF with the family key, Kf; recover U; obtain a court order to obtain the two halves of Ku; recover Ku; and then recover
Ks,
the session key. Use the session key to decrypt the message". The sequences described in the other answers are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 456
What is the MOST important element when considering the effectiveness of a training program for Business Continuity (BC) and Disaster Recovery (DR)?
- A. Consideration of organizational need
- B. Target audience
- C. Management support
- D. Technology used for delivery
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 457
In which order, from MOST to LEAST impacted, does user awareness training reduce the occurrence of the events below?
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 458
Which of the following would be less likely to prevent an employee from reporting an incident?
- A. They are unaware of the company's security policies and procedures
- B. They are afraid of being accused of something they didn't do
- C. They are afraid of being pulled into something they don't want to be involved with
- D. The process of reporting incidents is centralized
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reasons why a user won't report an incident (page 882 of Shon Harris 5th edition)
-Afraid of being pulled into something
-afraid of being accused Logically, they may be unaware of the procedure No reason that reporting incidents to a centralized location would be a problem so that leaves that as the answer.
NEW QUESTION # 459
......
The CISSP certification is highly valued by employers and is recognized as a standard for information security professionals. It demonstrates that an individual has the knowledge and skills needed to design, develop, and manage a security program that protects against cyber threats. As the demand for cybersecurity professionals continues to grow, the CISSP certification can help individuals stand out in a competitive job market and advance their careers.
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